Sunday, April 25, 2004

The referenda in Cyprus

Why did they set the referenda up in Cyprus so that they gave the Greek side an effective veto over whether the Turkish side of Cyprus gets to join the European Union? Since the Greek side was going to be in regardless of the results, there was no downside to their voting in such a way to exclude the Turks. The whole structure of the voting was set up in such a way that the Turks never had a chance. How dumb is that? Is this another part of the battle to keep Turkey out of Europe (revenge for 1683)? At the very least, it is time to lift the embargoes against the Turkish side.